UPSC Civil Services Pre. Exam Answer Key (Paper 1) – 04 October 2020

Q21. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Q22. Which part of the Constitution of India
declares the ideal of Welfare State?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh Schedule

Q23. Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India defines its Wasic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for judicial review to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q24. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
(b) class struggle
(c) abolition of private property
(d)economic determinism

Q25. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Q26. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect X
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Q27. “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to
(a) a loan system of the World Bank
(b) one of the operations of a Central Bank
(c) a credit system granted by WTO to its members
(d) a credit system granted by IMF to its members

Q28. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only.

Q29. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q30. Consider the following statements :
1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q31. Consider the following statements :
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

32. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government
(d) Lady making cut motions

Q33. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Q34. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights(incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Equality

Q35. In India, separation of the judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional practice

Q36. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro-Economic Framework Statement.’ The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
(a) Long-standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Q37. A constitutional government by definition is a
(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) multi-party government
(d) limited government

Q38. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q39. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Q40.Consider the following pairs :

International agreement/set-up       Subject
1. Alma-Ata Declaration                   Healthcare of the people
2. Hague chemical                           Biological and Convention weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue                         Global climate change
4. Under2 Coalition                         Child rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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1 thought on “UPSC Civil Services Pre. Exam Answer Key (Paper 1) – 04 October 2020”

  1. Lovely blog post. Helpful post about all students. Your blog always inspired and well quality content. I am always like your blog. Thanks for sharing this.

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